Download CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security.PremDumps.210-260.2019-04-04.1e.292q.vcex

Download Exam

File Info

Exam CCNA Security - Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS v3.0)
Number 210-260
File Name CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security.PremDumps.210-260.2019-04-04.1e.292q.vcex
Size 21.3 Mb
Posted April 04, 2019
Downloads 388
Download CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security.PremDumps.210-260.2019-04-04.1e.292q.vcex

How to open VCEX & EXAM Files?

Files with VCEX & EXAM extensions can be opened by ProfExam Simulator.

Purchase

Coupon: MASTEREXAM
With discount: 20%



 
 



Demo Questions

Question 1

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)

  • A: when a network device fails to forward packets
  • B: when you require ROMMON access
  • C: when management applications need concurrent access to the device
  • D: when you require administrator access from multiple locations
  • E: when the control plane fails to respond

Correct Answer: AB

Out-of-band refers to an interface that allows only management protocol traffic to be forwarded or processed. An out-of-band management interface is defined by the network operator to specifically receive network management traffic. The advantage isthat forwarding (or customer) traffic cannot interfere with the management of the router, which significantly reduces the possibility of denial-of-service attacks. 
Out-of-band interfaces forward traffic only between out-of-band interfaces or terminate management packets that are destined to the router. In addition, the out-of-band interfaces can participate in dynamic routing protocols. The service provider connects to the router’s out-of-band interfaces and builds an independent overlay management network, with all the routing and policy tools that the router can provide. 
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k_r4-0/security/configuration/guide/b_sc40asr9kbook/b_sc40asr9kbook_chapter_0101.pdf




Question 2

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)

  • A: Security Parameter Index
  • B: Sequence Number
  • C: MAC Address
  • D: Padding
  • E: Pad Length
  • F: Next Header

Correct Answer: DEF

The remaining four parts of the ESP are all encrypted during transmission across the network. Those parts are as follows:
The Payload Data is the actual data that is carried by the packet. 
The Padding, from 0 to 255 bytes of data, allows certain types of encryption algorithms to require the data to be a multiple of a certain number of bytes. The padding also ensures that the text of a message terminates ona four-byte boundary (an architectural requirement within IP). 
The Pad Length field specifies how much of the payload is padding rather than data. 
The Next Header field, like a standard IP Next Header field, identifies the type of data carried and the protocol. 
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/vpn_solutions_center/2-0/ip_security/provisioning/guide/IPsecPG1.html




Question 3

Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)

  • A: QoS
  • B: traffic classification
  • C: access lists
  • D: policy maps
  • E: class maps
  • F: Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: AB




Question 4

Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)

  • A: It can view encrypted files.
  • B: It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
  • C: It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
  • D: It can be deployed at the perimeter.
  • E: It uses signature-based policies.
  • F: It works with deployed firewalls.

Correct Answer: ABC

Cisco Host based IPS can generate alerts based on behavior at desktop level. They can also be more restrictive in policies than network based IPS. And you can view encrypted files using Host-based IPS solution. 
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1336425&seqNum=3




Question 5

What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)

  • A: deny attacker
  • B: deny packet
  • C: modify packet
  • D: request block connection
  • E: request block host
  • F: reset TCP connection

Correct Answer: ABC

The following actions require the device to be deployed in Inline mode and are in affect for a user- configurable default time of 3600 seconds (60 minutes). 
Deny attacker inline: This action is the most severe and effectively blocks all communication from the attacking host that passes through the IPS for a specified period of time. Because this event action is severe, administrators are advised to use this only when the probability of false alarms or spoofing is minimal.
Deny attacker service pair inline: This action prevents communication between the attacker IP address and the protected network on the port in which the event was detected. However, the attacker would be able to communicate on another port that has hosts on the protected network. This event action works well for worms that attack many hosts on the same service port. If an attack occurred on the same host but on another port, this communication would be allowed. This event action is appropriate when the likelihood of a false alarm or spoofing is minimal.
Deny attacker victim pair inline: This action prevents the attacker from communicating with the victim on any port. However, the attacker could communicate with other hosts, making this action better suited for exploits that target a specific host. This event action is appropriate when the likelihood of a false alarm or spoofing is minimal.
Deny connection inline: This action prevents further communication for the specific TCP flow. This action is appropriate when there is the potential for a false alarm or spoofing and when an administrator wants to prevent the action but not deny further communication.  
Deny packet inline: This action prevents the specific offending packet from reaching its intended destination. Other communication between the attacker and victim or victim network may still exist. This action is appropriate when there is the potential for a false alarm or spoofing. Note that for this action, the default time has no effect.
Modify packet inline: This action enables the IPS device to modify the offending part of the packet. However, it forwards the modified packet to the destination. This action is appropriate for packet normalization and other anomalies, such as TCP segmentation and IP fragmentation re-ordering.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/ips-mitigation.html




Question 6

What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?

  • A: to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
  • B: to determine whether data is relevant
  • C: to create a process for accessing data
  • D: to ensure that only authorized parties can view data

Correct Answer: A

The I in CIA stands for Integrity — specifically, data integrity. The key to this component of the CIA Triad is protecting data from modification or deletion by unauthorized parties, and ensuring that when authorized people make changes that shouldn't have been made the damage can be undone. 
Reference: http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/it-security/the-cia-triad/




Question 7

Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?

  • A: botnet
  • B: Trojan horse
  • C: virus
  • D: adware

Correct Answer: A

Attackers build networks of infected computers, known as 'botnets', by spreading malicious software through emails, websites and social media. Once infected, these machines can be controlled remotely, without their owners' knowledge, and used like an army to launch an attack against any target. Some botnets are millions of machines strong. 
Reference: http://www.digitalattackmap.com/understanding-ddos/




Question 8

What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?

  • A: Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
  • B: A Web site security framework.
  • C: A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
  • D: Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.

Correct Answer: A

OWASP seeks to educate developers, designers, architects and business owners about the risks associated with the most common Web application security vulnerabilities. OWASP, which supports both open source and commercial security products, has become known as a forum in which information technology professionals can network and build expertise. The organization publishes a popular Top Ten list that explains the most dangerous Web application security flaws and provides recommendations for dealing with those flaws. 
Reference: http://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/definition/OWASP




Question 9

What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

  • A: a symmetric algorithm
  • B: an asymmetric algorithm
  • C: a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm
  • D: an IP security algorithm

Correct Answer: A

Symmetric encryption (or pre-shared key encryption) uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt data. Both the sender and the receiver need the same key to communicate. 
Reference: https://www.digicert.com/ssl-cryptography.htm




Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. 

   

How many times was a read-only string used to attempt a write operation?

  • A: 9
  • B: 6
  • C: 4
  • D: 3
  • E: 2

Correct Answer: A

The read-only string attempted a write operation nine times as seen in the exhibit. It says, 9 illegal operations to community name supplied which means the read-only string attempted 9 write operations. 
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/access-lists/13608-21.html










CONNECT US

Facebook

Twitter

PROFEXAM WITH A 20% DISCOUNT

You can buy ProfExam with a 20% discount!



HOW TO OPEN VCEX AND EXAM FILES

Use ProfExam Simulator to open VCEX and EXAM files