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Exam Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
Number 300-101
File Name Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2-0).passguide.300-101.2019-10-01.1e.507q.vcex
Size 15.11 Mb
Posted October 01, 2019
Downloads 121
Download Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2-0).passguide.300-101.2019-10-01.1e.507q.vcex

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Demo Questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. 


A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?

  • A: incomplete ARP information
  • B: incorrect ACL
  • C: dynamic routing protocol failure
  • D: serial link congestion

Correct Answer: A

To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command. 
Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies 
There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency:
The router cannot use ARP successfully for the next-hop interface. 
After a clear ip arp or a clear adjacency command, the router marks the adjacency as incomplete. Then it fails to clear the entry. 
 In an MPLS environment, IP CEF should be enameled for Label Switching. Interface level command ip route-cache cef 
No ARP Entry 
When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency. 

Question 2

A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?

  • A: global synchronization
  • B: tail drop
  • C: random early detection
  • D: queue management algorithm

Correct Answer: A

TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs. 
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them. 
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. 
This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously. 

Question 3

Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?

  • A: Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.
  • B: Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.
  • C: Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.
  • D: Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.

Correct Answer: C

Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity between users of the new protocol.  
Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144: 
Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.  
Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability. 

Question 4

A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)

  • A: IP routing
  • B: FIB
  • C: ARP cache
  • D: MAC address table
  • E: Cisco Express Forwarding table
  • F: topology table

Correct Answer: AB

To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode:



Question 5

Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)

  • A: header compression
  • B: explicit congestion notification
  • C: keepalive
  • D: time stamps
  • E: TCP path discovery
  • F: MTU window

Correct Answer: BCD

TCP Selective Acknowledgment 
The TCP Selective Acknowledgment feature improves performance if multiple packets are lost from one TCP window of data. 
Prior to this feature, because of limited information available from cumulative acknowledgments, a TCP sender could learn about only one lost packet per-round-trip time. An aggressive sender could choose to resend packets early, but such re-sent segments might have already been successfully received. 
The TCP selective acknowledgment mechanism helps improve performance. The receiving TCP host returns selective acknowledgment packets to the sender, informing the sender of data that has been received. In other words, the receiver can acknowledge packets received out of order. The sender can then resend only missing data segments (instead of everything since the first missing packet). 
Prior to selective acknowledgment, if TCP lost packets 4 and 7 out of an 8-packet window, TCP would receive acknowledgment of only packets 1, 2, and 3. Packets 4 through 8 would need to be re-sent. With selective acknowledgment, TCP receives acknowledgment of packets 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 8. Only packets 4 and 7 must be re-sent. 
TCP selective acknowledgment is used only when multiple packets are dropped within one TCP window. There is no performance impact when the feature is enabled but not used. Use the ip tcp selective-ack command in global configuration mode to enable TCP selective acknowledgment. 
Refer to RFC 2018 for more details about TCP selective acknowledgment. 
TCP Time Stamp 
The TCP time-stamp option provides improved TCP round-trip time measurements. Because the time stamps are always sent and echoed in both directions and the time-stamp value in the header is always changing, TCP header compression will not compress the outgoing packet. To allow TCP header compression over a serial link, the TCP time-stamp option is disabled. Use the ip tcp timestamp command to enable the TCP time-stamp option. 
TCP Explicit Congestion Notification 
The TCP Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN) feature allows an intermediate router to notify end hosts of impending network congestion. It also provides enhanced support for TCP sessions associated with applications, such as Telnet, web browsing, and transfer of audio and video data that are sensitive to delay or packet loss. The benefit of this feature is the reduction of delay and packet loss in data transmissions. Use the ip tcp ecn command in global configuration mode to enable TCP ECN. 
TCP Keepalive Timer 
The TCP Keepalive Timer feature provides a mechanism to identify dead connections. 
When a TCP connection on a routing device is idle for too long, the device sends a TCP keepalive packet to the peer with only the Acknowledgment (ACK) flag turned on. If a response packet (a TCP ACK packet) is not received after the device sends a specific number of probes, the connection is considered dead and the device initiating the probes frees resources used by the TCP connection. 

Question 6

A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. 
Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?

  • A: latency
  • B: starvation
  • C: connectionless communication
  • D: nonsequencing unordered packets
  • E: jitter

Correct Answer: A

Cisco IOS IP SLAs provides a proactive notification feature with an SNMP trap. Each measurement operation can monitor against a pre-set performance threshold. Cisco IOS IP SLAs generates an SNMP trap to alert management applications if this threshold is crossed. Several SNMP traps are available: round trip time, average jitter, one-way latency, jitter, packet loss, MOS, and connectivity tests.
Here is a partial sample output from the IP SLA statistics that can be seen:
router#show ip sla statistics 1 
Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 55 
Latest RTT: 1 ms
Latest operation start time: *23:43:31.845 UTC Thu Feb 3 2005
Latest operation return code: OK
RTT Values:
Number Of RTT: 10 RTT Min/Avg/Max: 1/1/1 milliseconds
Latency one-way time:
Number of Latency one-way Samples: 0
Source to Destination Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds
Destination to Source Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds

Question 7

Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

  • A: when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
  • B: when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
  • C: when WRED is enabled
  • D: when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

Correct Answer: A

Mixing TCP with UDP 
It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. 
When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance. 
TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows. 

Question 8

Which difference in the packet fragmentation feature between IPv4 and IPv6 devices is true?

  • A: Only IPv6 headers support the DF bit.
  • B: Only IPv6 packets can be fragmented at the destination.
  • C: Only IPv4 headers support the more fragments bit.
  • D: Unlike IPv4 routers, IPv6 routers cannot fragment packets by default.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9

Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?

  • A: Disable CDP on the interface.
  • B: Execute the vpdn enable command.
  • C: Execute the no switchport command.
  • D: Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.

Correct Answer: B

Enabling PPPoE in a VPDN Group  
Perform this task to enable PPPoE in a virtual private dial-up network (VPDN) group. 
This task applies only to releases prior to Cisco IOS Release 12.2(13)T. 
configure terminal 
vpdn enable 
vpdn-group name 
protocol pppoe 



Question 10

A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. 
Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?

  • A: PAP
  • B: dot1x
  • C: Ipsec
  • D: CHAP
  • E: ESP

Correct Answer: D

With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet to the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or “challenges” the remote device to respond. The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.  
When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote device’s password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote device’s password. The remote device sends the results back to the access server, along with the name associated with the password used in the encryption process. 
When the access server receives the response, it uses the name it received to retrieve a password stored in its user database. The retrieved password should be the same password the remote device used in its encryption process. The access server then encrypts the concatenated information with the newly retrieved password — if the result matches the result sent in the response packet, authentication succeeds. 
The benefit of using CHAP authentication is that the remote device’s password is never transmitted in clear text (encrypted). This prevents other devices from stealing it and gaining illegal access to the ISP’s network.





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