Download Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).CertDumps.350-401.2021-04-03.1e.20q.vcex

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Exam Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR)
Number 350-401
File Name Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).CertDumps.350-401.2021-04-03.1e.20q.vcex
Size 822 Kb
Posted April 03, 2021
Downloads 10
Download Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR).CertDumps.350-401.2021-04-03.1e.20q.vcex

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Demo Questions

Question 1

After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?

  • A: RPVST+
  • B: RP failover
  • C: BFD
  • D: NSF

Correct Answer: D

Question 2

What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

  • A: Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM
  • B: The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match
  • C: The MAC address table is contained in CAM. ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM
  • D: TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

Correct Answer: C

When using Ternary Content Addressable Memory (TCAM) inside routers it’s used for faster address lookup that enables fast routing.  
In switches Content Addressable Memory (CAM) is used for building and lookup of mac address table that enables L2 forwarding decisions.  
Besides Longest-Prefix Matching, TCAM in today’s routers and multilayer Switch devices are used to store ACL, QoS and other things from upper-layer processing.

Question 3

Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DNA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two)

  • A: UDP 67: DHCP
  • B: ICMP: Discovery
  • C: TCP 23: Telnet
  • D: UDP 162: SNMP
  • E: UDP 6007: NetFlow

Correct Answer: BD

In the figure below, we can see ICMP & SNMP can reach to underlay switches.  


Question 4

What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?

  • A: to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
  • B: to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric
  • C: to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
  • D: to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships

Correct Answer: D

Control-Plane Nodes – Map System that manages Endpoint to Device relationships  
Fabric Border Nodes – A Fabric device (e.g. Core) that connects External L3 network(s) to the SDA Fabric  
Fabric Edge Nodes – A Fabric device (e.g. Access or Distribution) that connects Wired Endpoints to the SDA Fabric  
Fabric Wireless Controller – A Fabric device (WLC) that connects APs and Wireless Endpoints to the SDA Fabric  

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?  


  • A: Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network
  • B: DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+
  • C: Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode
  • D: Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode

Correct Answer: B

From the output we see DSW2 is running in RSTP mode (in fact Rapid PVST+ mode as Cisco does not support RSTP alone). When a new switch running PVST+ mode is added to the topology, they keep running the old STP instances as RSTP (in fact Rapid PVST+) is compatible with PVST+.

Question 6

What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

  • A: required in each layer of the network
  • B: filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only
  • C: only required at the network perimeter
  • D: provides intrusion prevention

Correct Answer: D

A next generation firewall adds additional features such as application control, integrated intrusion prevention (IPS) and often more advanced threat prevention capabilities like sandboxing.

Question 7

Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source?

  • A: stratum
  • B: hop count
  • C: time zone
  • D: latency

Correct Answer: A

The stratum levels define the distance from the reference clock. A reference clock is a stratum 0 device that is assumed to be accurate and has little or no delay associated with it. Stratum 0 servers cannot be used on the network but they are directly connected to computers which then operate as stratum-1 servers. A stratum 1 time server acts as a primary network time standard.  

A stratum 2 server is connected to the stratum 1 server; then a stratum 3 server is connected to the stratum 2 server and so on. 
A stratum 2 server gets its time via NTP packet requests from a stratum 1 server. 
A stratum 3 server gets its time via NTP packet requests from a stratum-2 server…

Question 8

Which two resu lts occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

  • A: All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center
  • B: Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect
  • C: Users lose connectivity
  • D: Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance
  • E: User connectivity is unaffected

Correct Answer: DE

If you have Cisco SD-Access implemented and DNA Center becomes unreachable then the wired and wireless network will continue to forward packets as usual. There will be no impact to network performance or behavior. Yes you will be able to SSH / telnet / console into switches and wireless network infrastructure as usual. For the period DNA Center is unreachable, Assurance data will be lost, and you will not be able to make configuration changes to the Cisco SD-Access network.

Question 9

Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)

  • A: proxy ETR
  • B: HMAC algorithm
  • C: route reflector
  • D: egress tunnel router
  • E: spoke

Correct Answer: AD

An Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) connects a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network (such as the Internet), publishes EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, responds to Map-Request messages, and decapsulates and delivers LISP-encapsulated user data to end systems at the site.  
A LISP proxy ETR (PETR) implements ETR functions on behalf of non-LISP sites. A PETR is typically used when a LISP site needs to send traffic to non-LISP sites but the LISP site is connected through a service provider that does not accept nonroutable EIDs as packet sources. PETRs act just like ETRs but for EIDs that send traffic to destinations at non-LISP sites.

Question 10

Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.  

Correct Answer: Exam simulator is required

The VMX file simply holds the virtual machine configuration.  
VMDK (short for Virtual Machine Disk) is a file format that describes containers for virtual hard disk drives to be used in virtual machines like VMware Workstation or VirtualBox.  
An OVA file is an Open Virtualization Appliance that contains a compressed, “installable” version of a virtual machine. When you open an OVA file it extracts the VM and imports it into whatever virtualization software you have installed on your computer.





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